As far as I could see the comparison was between homosexuals (a high percentage of AIDS cases despite coming from a numerically small subsection of the population) and black people (a high percentage of AIDS cases despite coming from a numerically small subsection of the population). The fact that someone on a cursory glance might think that there is no greater prevalence of AIDS in the homosexual than the heterosexual population is fairly irrelevant if that's not the issue under discussion.

I didn't see any claim or implied claim that a given homosexual in the catchment area is scarcely more likely than a given heterosexual to have AIDS, but maybe I didn't investigate the relevant documents closely enough. That's the claim that would get my hackles up.